Q001(B)Young woman with unprovoked DVT/PE. Think inherited thrombophilia. Factor V Leiden is the most common.
Q002(A)Symmetric small-joint arthritis with morning stiffness in a middle-aged woman = rheumatoid arthritis. Anti-CCP is the most specific serology (\>95%).
Q003(B)Failure of left eye abduction (not adduction) plus right hemiparesis equals left medial pontine syndrome. This is CN VI (abducens) palsy, not internuclear ophthalmoplegia. INO i...
Q004(C)Mononucleosis-like illness + pancytopenia + heterophile-negative = acute HIV seroconversion.
Q005(C)Drug + rash + eosinophils + WBC casts = AIN. Penicillins (esp. Methicillin/oxacillin) are textbook offenders.
Q006(D)Acquired syringomyelia in young adults is most often post-traumatic; congenital is from Chiari I. The headache (occipital, valsalva) plus syrinx points to Chiari, but the questi...
Q007(E)Classic intermittent claudication in an atherosclerotic patient = atherosclerosis of lower-extremity arteries.
Q008(A)Motivational interviewing for a precontemplation/contemplation patient: elicit the patient's own reasons for change (autonomy support), do not lecture or shame.
Q009(B)Drop in weight with preserved length = inadequate caloric intake. At 18 months she should be on whole milk + a varied table-food diet; formula alone is too low calorie/volume fo...
Q010(A)Missing a major calcium source = systematic measurement error (misclassification of exposure). Fixing it improves accuracy of the exposure measure, i.e., internal validity.
Q011(D)Trypanosoma cruzi is transmitted by the reduviid ("kissing") bug, which defecates near the bite; the parasite enters when the host rubs feces into the wound.
Q012(A)Unclear agenda. The patient keeps coming back yet refuses standard therapy. Use an open-ended question to clarify his expectations and values without judgment.
Q013(B)First-line symptomatic BPH therapy = α1-adrenergic antagonist (tamsulosin, terazosin).
Q014(A)Distractibility, decreased need for sleep, grandiosity, pressured speech, and goal- directed behavior = manic episode. Psychotic features (delusions, hallucinations) are mood-co...
Q015(B)PPIs (omeprazole) irreversibly inhibit the H+/K+ ATPase. The final step. Producing the most profound and sustained pH rise. H2 blockers (cimetidine) only block histamine-driven ...
Q016(B)Colon → portal vein → liver (first). Once liver mets are established, tumor cells embolize from hepatic veins → IVC → right heart → lungs.
Q017(E)Burrows in interdigital webs + intense itch (worse at night) = Sarcoptes scabiei.
Q018(E)Sickle cell = chronic hemolysis → excess unconjugated bilirubin secreted in bile → calcium bilirubinate (pigment) stones.
Q019(D)MEN2A = MTC + pheochromocytoma + parathyroid hyperplasia, caused by activating germline mutation of the RET proto-oncogene.
Q020(A)Both LH and FSH are elevated. The pituitary is driving this. Elevated gonadotropins in a prepubertal girl = central (gonadotropin-dependent) precocious puberty = premature activ...
Q021(E)Hypergonadotropic hypogonadism (FSH 45, LH 34, T 45) + tall stature + gynecomastia = 47,XXY.
Q022(B)Salt-wasting crisis + virilized genitalia = 21-hydroxylase deficiency → no aldosterone, no cortisol.
Q023(C)Pericardial friction rub = uremic pericarditis = absolute indication for urgent dialysis.
Q024(C)Acute ischemia drops contractility → ESPVR shifts down/right → larger end-systolic volume, smaller stroke volume.
Q025(C)"Freezing"/wearing-off on L-DOPA → add selegiline/rasagiline (MAO-B inhibitor) to prolong dopamine action.
Q026(E)Left posterior 9th-11th ribs overlie the spleen.
Q027(B)Antipsychotic + hyperthermia + autonomic dysregulation = NMS → "lead-pipe" rigidity.
Q028(E)Naphthylamine + smoking + renal pelvis = urothelial carcinoma.
Q029(A)Central facial flushing with triggers = rosacea; alcohol (especially red wine) is a classic trigger.
Q030(B)A small unvaccinated minority is protected by vaccinated peers. Herd immunity.
Q031(A)Anti-D immunoglobulin binds fetal Rh(D)+ RBCs in maternal circulation, preventing maternal sensitization.
Q032(D)Acute monoarticular first-MTP arthritis after purine/alcohol load = gout (uric acid = end product of purine degradation).
Q033(A)Motivational interviewing favors open-ended, nonjudgmental questions that elicit the patient's own perspective.
Q034(C)Lymphatic vessels arise from mesoderm (lymphangioblasts budding from venous endothelium).
Q035(B)Chronic hypoxemia → renal EPO release → secondary polycythemia.
Q036(B)Bloody diarrhea → HUS triad (MAHA + thrombocytopenia + AKI) = Shiga-toxin- producing E. Coli O157:H7.
Q037(C)Pressure overload (HTN) → concentric hypertrophy from sarcomeres added in parallel.
Q038(B)"Metabolic activation" of procarcinogens (benzene, PAHs) = Phase I oxidation by cytochrome P450s.
Q039(B)Healthy volunteers + safety/PK = Phase 1.
Q040(A)Glucagon raises glucose only if liver glycogen is available; chronic exercise depletes glycogen stores.
Q041(B)SPIKES protocol. After Setting/Perception/Invitation, the physician should give honest, plain-language Knowledge with a warning shot, not hedge or minimize.
Q042(B)Erythrocytosis + splenomegaly + thrombocytosis in a non-smoker = polycythemia vera, driven by JAK2 V617F.
Q043(E)Olfactory aura + automatisms = uncinate/mesial temporal focus → hippocampus / medial temporal lobe.
Q044(A)Painful bilateral parotid enlargement in a patient with chronic vomiting is sialadenosis from repeated autonomic stimulation of the salivary glands. The symptom drug is a sialag...
Q045(D)Delayed rash (24-48h) after plant contact = urushiol-induced allergic contact dermatitis = Type IV hypersensitivity.
Q046(E)Chronic hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction → pulmonary hypertension → RV hypertrophy → reduced RV diastolic compliance.
Q047(A)Upper-extremity hypertension + lower-extremity hypotension + interscapular murmur = coarctation of the aorta → delayed/diminished femoral pulses (radiofemoral delay).
Q048(A)Hypercalcemia + suppressed PTH + bilateral hilar adenopathy = sarcoidosis → granulomatous 1α-hydroxylase activity in macrophages.
Q049(C)Steatorrhea = fat malabsorption → lipase is the rate-limiting enzyme of fat digestion and the most rapidly destroyed in chronic pancreatitis.
Q050(C)Metronidazole kills invasive trophozoites in tissue but does not eradicate luminal cysts in the colon → relapse and continued shedding. Paromomycin (a luminal amebicide) clears ...
Q051(D)Striated malignant cells in a child's orbit = embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma.
Q052(E)Skin puncture → rapidly progressive necrotizing soft-tissue infection with sepsis in an immunocompetent adult. Staphylococcus aureus (per key) is the most common skin/wound path...
Q053(C)LMN signs in hands + UMN signs in legs + cape-like sensory loss = central cord syndrome; intrinsic hand muscles are innervated by T1 (ulnar/median).
Q054(D)Extrapulmonary restriction from chest-wall/abdominal mass loading → ↓FVC, ↓TLC, preserved FEV1/FVC ratio, and normal DLCO (lung parenchyma is intact).
Q055(C)Chronic estrogen deficiency → vaginal atrophy → loss of rugae, thinning epithelium, decreased lubrication.
Q056(E)Open-ended, non-judgmental exploration of patient's understanding beats accusatory or closed questions.
Q057(D)Larger n → higher statistical power → lower β → less chance of Type II error (false negative).
Q058(D)Dilation stops at the level where the renal pelvis meets the ureter = ureteropelvic junction (UPJ) obstruction.
Q059(E)Disseminated nontuberculous mycobacteria in an otherwise healthy child without HIV = defect in the IL-12 / IFN-γ axis (often IFN-γ receptor).
Q060(G)Recurrent firm mass at a previous surgical site on the upper chest, with dermal type I and III collagen overgrowth extending past the original scar, equals keloid. The cell driv...
Q061(C)Lisinopril during the second trimester → ACE inhibitor fetopathy with oligohydramnios.
Q062(C)Acute, frothy, protein-poor intra-alveolar edema with no inflammation = acute cardiogenic pulmonary edema.
Q063(E)Rifampin is a potent inducer of CYP enzymes (2C9 metabolizes warfarin).
Q064(A)AMD's \#1 modifiable-independent risk factor after smoking is advancing age. Prevalence climbs steeply after 75.
Q065(E)Cytotoxic induction chemotherapy ablates the marrow → absolute neutrophil count falls 7-14 days after dosing, the classic nadir window.
Q066(A)ARR = control risk − treatment risk (simple subtraction of incidence proportions).
Q067(B)Auer rods (azurophilic, needle-shaped MPO crystals) on a blood smear in an older adult = AML.
Q068(D)Tendon xanthomas + extreme LDL + autosomal dominant family pattern = heterozygous familial hypercholesterolemia.
Q069(C)Primary monosymptomatic nocturnal enuresis in a young child with normal workup → developmental.
Q070(A)Repeated straining against hard stool in a healthy child → mucosal rectal prolapse.
Q071(D)Among the unaffected offspring of two obligate carriers (Aa × Aa), genotypes are 1 AA : 2 Aa : 1 aa. Removing the affected aa leaves 2 Aa : 1 AA → 2/3 carrier probability.
Q072(A)Need vasoconstriction without chronotropy → pure α1 agonist (phenylephrine).
Q073(D)Horseshoe kidney = fusion of the inferior poles of the two metanephroi during ascent.
Q074(C)First step is to reinforce disclosure with a neutral, supportive, non-judgmental acknowledgment.
Q075(D)Adipose-driven insulin resistance forces β-cells to oversecrete insulin → fasting hyperinsulinemia precedes hyperglycemia.
Q076(D)Carbohydrate/salt-heavy meal trigger plus post-exercise rest equals HYPOkalemic periodic paralysis. Insulin from carb load drives K+ intracellularly, serum K+ falls, muscle para...
Q077(F)Dilute urine that concentrates with vasopressin = central DI (ADH deficiency, not renal resistance).
Q078(B)"Fried-egg" cells (clear cytoplasm, large central nucleolus) in a young man's testicle = seminoma.
Q079(D)Heavy in-utero alcohol exposure → fetal alcohol syndrome with characteristic facies.
Q080(D)Painless goiter + hyperthyroidism appearing in the postpartum window + no Graves eye signs = postpartum (silent) lymphocytic thyroiditis.
Q081(D)Specificity = 900/1000 = 90%, so FPR = 10%. Non-diseased population ≈ 100,000 − 80 = 99,920. FP ≈ 0.10 × 99,920 ≈ 9992.
Q082(E)Hemineglect (extinction to double simultaneous stimulation) localizes to the non- dominant (right) parietal lobe; left lower quadrantanopia = right upper optic radiation (pariet...
Q083(E)Conotruncal cardiac defect + hypocalcemia + facial dysmorphism = 22q11.2 deletion.
Q084(E)Sawtooth flutter waves in the inferior leads with an irregular ventricular response equals typical atrial flutter, not atrial fibrillation. The reentrant circuit is in the RIGHT...
Q085(D)Oral NSAID-related upper GI bleed → systemic COX-1 inhibition decreasing mucosal prostaglandins.
Q086(A)Normal embryologic development with extrinsic mechanical compression in utero = deformation.
Q087(B)Tracheal deviation away from the injured side = tension pneumothorax on the right.
Q088(D)Acute blood loss → EPO surge → reticulocytosis by day 3-7, peaking around 10 days.
Q089(B)Steatorrhea preferentially depletes fat-soluble vitamins (A, D, E, K). Dry scaly skin (follicular hyperkeratosis) and rash point to vitamin A.
Q090(C)Renal medulla is hypoxic and hyperosmolar, the perfect environment for HbS polymerization and microvascular occlusion.
Q091(C)The histologic hallmark is dense neutrophil infiltration; the chief chemotactic mediator is leukotriene B4.
Q092(B)Acute psychotic symptoms lasting \<1 month following a marked stressor, with prior baseline functioning intact.
Q093(B)Summer + camp outbreak + lymphocyte-predominant CSF with normal glucose = enterovirus (coxsackie, echovirus).
Q094(B)Restrictive pattern with preserved DLCO and reduced diaphragmatic excursion indicates extrapulmonary (neuromuscular/chest wall) restriction, not parenchymal disease.
Q095(C)Primary dysmenorrhea is driven by endometrial prostaglandin (PGF2α) overproduction causing uterine hypercontractility and ischemia. First-line therapy: NSAIDs.
Q096(D)Hypovolemia + hyperosmolar plasma → maximal ADH (vasopressin) signaling at the collecting duct.
Q097(D)Bilateral parotitis in an unvaccinated/under-vaccinated young adult in a dorm setting = mumps virus.
Q098(D)Anti-CTLA-4 (ipilimumab) is an established checkpoint inhibitor for advanced melanoma.
Q099(D)Family members should not serve as medical interpreters because of confidentiality, accuracy, and emotional bias issues. A telephone interpreter is available and meets the stand...
Q100(C)Classic Bordetella pertussis in an unvaccinated infant → treat with a macrolide (azithromycin first-line).
Q101(F)Amphetamines are indirect sympathomimetics that act primarily at the presynaptic terminal.
Q102(E)Tall young man + tearing back pain + new diastolic murmur = type A aortic dissection producing acute aortic regurgitation.
Q103(E)MEPP (quantal size) normal but EPP (number of quanta released) decreased → presynaptic ACh release defect, not postsynaptic.
Q104(C)Hypercalcemia + inappropriately normal/high PTH + low urinary calcium (FE \<1%) = FHH, not primary hyperparathyroidism.
Q105(C)Patient is expressing a values-driven shift; the physician should explore goals of care, not redirect, dismiss, or pathologize.
Q106(C)46,XX with virilization but normal müllerian structures → fetal androgen excess. The classic intrinsic cause is 21-hydroxylase deficiency; the question lists maternal androgen e...
Q107(D)Dermatophyte infection of the feet → first-line oral/topical agent for moccasin/ extensive tinea is terbinafine.
Q108(B)Adduction failure on contralateral gaze with intact convergence = INO; localize by the side of the adducting eye.
Q109(A)Chronic hypertension → arteriolar wall thickening that indents crossing venules.
Q110(D)Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia in a 2-week-old with elevated GGT and ALP = biliary obstruction → biliary atresia.
Q111(B)Young woman + abdominal bruit + severe secondary HTN = fibromuscular dysplasia of the renal arteries.
Q112(D)In a normal distribution, the mean equals the median. By definition, exactly 50% of all values fall below the mean. No range arithmetic needed. Half the population is below 7500.
Q113(C)Normal ristocetin (vWF-GpIb axis intact) but failed aggregation to physiologic agonists = GpIIb/IIIa defect.
Q114(C)Single mutation explains a large fraction of disease in a geographically/historically isolated population = founder effect.
Q115(B)A pedunculated, ball-valve cardiac mass causing positional syncope is virtually always an atrial myxoma, and \~75-80% arise in the left atrium attached to the fossa ovalis.
Q116(D)Rejection within minutes = hyperacute, mediated by recipient preformed antibodies against donor antigens (ABO/HLA).
Q117(A)Long-term bisphosphonate use → suppressed bone turnover → atypical (subtrochanteric/midshaft) femoral fracture.
Q118(C)Tenderness just distal to the lateral malleolus = anterior talofibular ligament injury, the most commonly sprained ankle ligament, caused by inversion.
Q119(E)Aspirated foreign body in a mainstem bronchus partially obstructs ventilation while perfusion continues → low V/Q (shunt-like) physiology → hypoxemia.